Windows System Administrator Multiple Choice Questions and Answers:-
1. Which of the following administrative thinkers has defined administration as “the organization and direction of human and material resources to achieve desired ends”?
A. L. D. White
B. J. M. Pfiffner
C. J. A. Veig
D. H. A. Simon
2. Which one of the following statements is not correct in respect of New Public Management?
A. It has a market orientation
B. It upholds public interest
C. It advocates managerial autonomy
D. It focuses on performance appraisal
3. ‘Good Governance’ and ‘Participating Civil Society for Development’ were stressed in the World Bank Report of—
4. If the administrative authority within a department is vested in a single individual, then that system is known as—
5. Globalization means—
A. A financial market system is centered in a single state
B. The growth of a single unified world market
C. The geographical location of a firm is of utmost importance
D. Foreign capitalist transactions
6. By whom was the ‘Managerial Grid’ developed?
A. Blake and White
B. Blake and Schmidt
C. Blake and Mouton
D. Mouton and Shophan
7. Who among the following says that public administration includes the operations of only the executive branch of government?
A. L. D. White and Luther Gulick
B. L. D. White
C. Luther Gulick
D. W. F. Willoughby
8. The concept of the ‘zone of indifference’ is associated with—
9. Who has analyzed the leadership in terms of ‘circular response’?
A. C. I. Barnard
B. M. P. Follett
10. Simon proposed a new concept of administration based on the methodology of—
B. Bounded rationality
C. Logical positivism
11. Who wrote the book ‘Towards A New Public Administration: The Minnowbrook Perspective’?
A. Frank Marini
B. Dwight Waldo
C. C. J. Charlesworth
D. J. M. Pfiffner
12. Who rejected the principles of administration as ‘myths’ and ‘proverbs’?
A. W. F. Willoughby
B. Herbert Simon
C. Chester Barnard
D. L. D. White
13. The classical theory of administration is also known as the—
A. Historical theory
B. Mechanistic theory
C. Locational theory
D. Human Relations theory
14. How many principles of the organization were propounded by Henry Fayol?
15. Simon was positively influenced by ideas of—
C. L. D. White
D. Henry Fayol
16. Negative motivation is based on—
17. ‘Job loading’ means—
A. Shifting of an employee from one job to another
B. Deliberate upgrading of responsibility, scope, and challenges
C. Making the job more interesting
D. None of the above
18. The theory of ‘Prismatic Society’ in Public Administration is based on—
A. Study of public services in developed and developing countries
B. Institutional comparison of public administration in developed countries
C. Structural-functional analysis of public administration in developing countries
D. Historical studies of public administration in different societies
19. Who among the following is an odd thinker?
20. Which of the following is not included in ‘hygiene’ factors in Herzberg’s two-factor theory of motivation?
B. Working conditions
C. Company’s policy
Ans : D
21. What should a system administrator use to disable access to a custom application for a group of users?
B. Sharing rules
C. Web tabs
D. Page layouts
22. Universal Containers needs to track the manufacturer and model for specific car companies. How can the system administrator ensure that the manufacturer selected influences the values available for the model?
A. Create the manufacturer field as a dependent picklist and the model as a controlling picklist.
B. Create a lookup field from the manufacturer object to the model object.
C. Create the manufacturer field as a controlling picklist and the model as a dependent picklist.
D. Create a multi-select picklist field that includes both manufacturers and models.
23. Sales representatives at Universal Containers need assistance from product managers when selling certain products. Product managers do not have access to opportunities but need to gain access when they are assisting with a specific deal. How can a system administrator accomplish this?
A. Notify the product manager using the opportunity to update reminders.
B. Enable sales teams and allow users to add the product manager.
C. Use similar opportunities to show opportunities related to the product manager.
D. Enable account teams and allow users to add the product manager
24. What should a system administrator consider before importing a set of records into Salesforce? There are two correct answers.
A. The import file should include a record owner for each record.
B. Currency field values will default to the personal currency of the record owner.
C. Data should be de-duplicated in the import file prior to import.
D. Validation rules are not triggered when importing data using the import wizard.
Ans: A, C
25. Which statement about custom summary formulas in reports is true? There are two correct answers..
A. Reports can be grouped by a custom summary formula result.
B. Custom summary formulas can reference a formula field within a report.
C. Custom summary formulas can reference another custom summary formula.
D. Custom summary formulas can be used in a report built from a custom report type.
Ans: B, D
26. Which of the following utilities provides a report of memory status for instances, databases, and agents?
27. Given the following notification log entry:
In order to determine the name of the application which encountered the error, which of the following actions must be taken?
A.Issue DB2 LIST DCS APPLICATIONS and search for AC14B132.OB12.0138C7070500
B. Issue DB2 LIST APPLICATIONS and search for AC14B132.OB12.0138C7070500
C.Issue DB2 LIST DCS APPLICATIONS and search for 660
D.Issue DB2 LIST APPLICATIONS and search for 660
28. Given the table MYTAB:
A. The index MYINX will not be created.
B. The word UNIQUE will be omitted by DB2 and a non-unique index MYINX will be created.
C. The unique index MYINX will be created and the rows with duplicate keys will be deleted from the table.
D. The unique index MYINX will be created and the rows with duplicate keys will be placed in an exception table.
29. Which of the following REORG table options will compress the data in a table using the existing compression dictionary?
30. Which of the following statements about SCHEMA objects is true?
A. A schema must always be associated with a user.
B. Triggers and sequences do not have schemas associated with them.
C. After creating a new database, all users who successfully authenticate with the database have the ability to create a new schema.
D. If a schema is not explicitly specified in a SQL statement, the PUBLIC schema is assumed.
31. A serious server with domino and Websphere Commerce suite installed is performing well, except when the
Domino or Websphere servers are starting. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the performance
A. Job Queue SERVER in subsystem SERVER is set to single thread jobs.
B. The activity level in the shared pool running the servers is too low.
C. The managing Domino server instance is not started prior to the Websphere server instance.
D. The system value QMLTTHDACN Multithreaded job action. is set to stop non-thread safe processes.
32. A system administrator needs to add 100 users to a V6R2 system without impacting response times, Which of the
following would be the first step in determining the current performance of the system?
A. Define a performance collection agent in iDoctor for iSeries.
B. Define a performance collection object within iSeries Navigator.
C. Use Performance Explorer to collect generalized performance data.
D. Use the Workload Estimator to show existing performance constraints.
33. A batch subsystem is established to run jobs from multiple queues, An application submits two jobs to each
queue. All jobs are in release status. Which of the following is the reason that only three jobs have started to run?
A. The total MAXACT for all fo the job queue entries is three.
B. Only three of the job queue priorities have been defined in the subsystem.
C. The activity level setting associated with the subsystem description is 3.
D. The execution of the pending jobs is governed within the application of the jobs currently running.
34. What command is used to save the IFS to taps?
C. SAVDLO DLO IFS.
D. SAVSYS OBJTYPE IFS…
35. A Manufacturing company has three remote sites and a total of six distributed AS/400 systems. The company
would like to accomplish the followings.
A. Centralize to a single system.
B. Maintain each system workload and identity attributes.
C. Reduce the total cost of ownership of maintaining individual systems.
D. Maintain existing performance levels.
36. Which of the following can have an impact on determining the interactive workload requirements of an iSeries?
A. Active subsystems.
B. Active controllers.
C. Active user profiles.
D. Active display sessions.
Ans : D
37. On a system that does not have Performance Tools for iSeries 5722-PTI., how can performance data be collected
for analysis on a different system that has Performance Tools installed?
A. Use Electronic Service Agent for iSeries.
B. Use the Start Performances Monitor command.
C. Start a Performance Monitor in iSeries Navigator.
D. Install and run OS/400 product option 42, performance Collection Client.
38. Which fo the following commands will save all objects in the IFS?
C. SAVLIB “IFS”
D. SAVLIB NONSYS.
39. Which system performance command can send output to both the online serene and a database file
40. Using the example below, what is the cumulative PTF level of the system?
Display PTF status.
Product ID………….. 5722999
IPL source…………… ## MACH#B
release of base option ……..V5R1M0.LOO.
Opt ID Status Action.
TL02134 Temporarily applied None.
TL02071 Permanently applied None.
TL01226 Superseded None.
RE01066 Permanently Applied None.
QLL2924 Permanently Applied None.
MF29379 Permanently Applied None.
MF29287 Permanently Applied None.
41. Job description FREDJOBD has the public authority of USE. This job description specifies that jobs run under the user
profile FRED. Which has public authority EXCLUDE*. Use profile SUE is user class USER* with default special
authorities and does not have specific authority to use profile FRED.
User which security levels would user profile SUE be able to successfully submit a job using PREDJOBD with the
intent to run the job under user profile FRED?
A. At 20 only.
B. At 20 and 30.
C. At 20, 30, and 40.
D. At 20,30,40, and 50.
42. On an iSeries running V5R2, which fo the following authorities needs to be removed from an object to ensure that
the object owner cannot delete it?
A. Object alter authority.
B. Object existence authority.
C. Object Management authority.
D. Object operational authority.
43. Which of the following disk drive considerations has the greatest impact on system performance?
A. A number of disk drives on a bus.
B. User versus available disk space.
C. Data protection method RAID versus mirroring.
D. Peak rate of disk requests versus the number of disk arms.
Ans : D
44. Which of the following will enable an administrator to establish an ongoing analysis of the performance and
utilization of an iSeries?
A. Upload the performance data to the IBM Workload Estimator.
B. Activate Performance Manage/400 to automatically upload data to IBM.
C. Enable PPP communications between the iSeries and the IBM Benchmark Center.
D. Utilize the no-charge OS/400 performance analysis tools to print monthly reports.
45. Users are reporting long response time delays in transactions that previously would run with sunscald response.
The system administrator knows these transactions are RPG IV-SQL based programs. Which of the following would
be the first set in determining the problems.
A. Use Management Central to start a job monitor for the system and select the SQL sub monitor display.
B. Use iSeries Navigator, SQL Performance Monitor to collect and analyze the SQL performance of the jobs.
C. Start to debug on one of the online jobs and use Performance Explorer to analyze the jobs database access plan.
D. Use iSeries Navigator to create a database map of the tables used in the transactions and watch for high I/O rates.
46. A system administrator wants to collect performance data for multiple iSeries servers in a network. When
attempting to start performance collection using iSeries Navigator, collection services fail. Which of the following is the
most likely cause of the problem?
A. The Management Central, central system is not connecting.
B. Performance Tools 5722.PTI. is not installed on all systems.
C. The user profile is used to start collection does not have *SYSADM special authority.
D. The Management Central performance collector plug-in is not installed in iSeries Navigator.
47. Which of the following can be adjusted daily by a scheduled job to maximize interactive or bath throughput?
A. Memory pools.
B. QACTJOB system value.
C. Auxiliary storage pools.
D. QMAXACTLVL system value.
48. Which of the following would the most viable course of action?
A. Implement High Availability and replicate each system to a single system.
B. Implement LPAR on a centrally located system and consolidate the individual systems onto multiple partitions.
C. Transfer all systems to the central location and create an iSeries cluster to form a single “logical” system.
D. Consolidate all the systems into a single partition on a syst3em with a CPW rating that matches or exceeds the
accumulated CPW of the individual systems.
49. Which of the following should be considered when preparing for a release upgrade?
A. User changes made to IBM supplied commands.
B. Valid license information for the current release.
C. Presence of user libraries after QSYS in the system library list.
D. Installation of the latest cumulative package for the current release.
50. An iSeries Administrator would like to monitor the performance of all four of the machines in the data center at one
time. If a certain level of interactive CPU is reached, the administrator wants to receive an email. What needs to be
done to satisfy the requirements.
A. In Management Central, set up a system group monitor job with a threshold action.
B. In iSeries Navigator create endpoints for each of the systems and set up a threshold job monitor.
C. Add an exit program to the WRKACTJOB command to intercept the CPU statistics and process the email.
D. Start PM/400 and use the PM/400 notification options to send the email when the threshold is reached.
WINDOWS SYSTEM ADMINISTRATOR Objective Questions Pdf Free Download::
51. A DBA wishes to audit all access to the non-audited table OWNER.EMPLOYEE. Assuming no audit traces are started, which of the following steps are needed to audit access to this table?
A. -START TRACE AUDIT CLASS 5.
B. -START TRACE AUDIT CLASS 4, 5.
C. -START TRACE AUDIT CLASS 4, 5. and ALTER TABLE OWNER.EMPLOYEE AUDIT ALL
D. -START TRACE AUDIT CLASS 4, 5. and ALTER TABLE OWNER.EMPLOYEE DATA CAPTURE CHANGES
52. A company uses TRUSTED CONTEXT “ERP1” and ROLE “ERP_ROLE” as a security mechanism to limit security exposure for an application. All the DB2 objects databases, table spaces, tables, indexes, views, plans, and packages. have been created by that ROLE. The ROLE “ERP_ROLE” has been assigned to User ID “DBA01” in order to perform DBA related tasks. When the user “DBA01” leaves the company, the authorization ID is removed. Which of the following statements are correct? Select two answers.
A. None of these DB2 objects need to be recreated to re-grant the privileges.
B. The related plans and packages have to be recreated and the privileges re-granted.
C. When removing user “DBA01” privileges, none of these DB2 objects need to be dropped.
D. Only the related databases, table spaces, tables, indexes, and views need to be recreated and the privileges re-granted.
E. To remove the privileges of user “DBA01” on these related plans and packages, they have to be dropped and as a result, all associated privileges are revoked.
Ans: A, C
53. At which of the following times is the access control authorization routine [email protected] invoked?
A. At DB2 startup.
B. When executing a DB2 GRANT statement.
C. When DB2 has cached authorization information.
D. During any authorization check if NO was specified in the USE PROTECTION field of the DSNTIPP panel.
54. If an object is created statically by a role within a trusted context and the ROLE AS OBJECT OWNER clause is specified, who becomes the object owner when executing the package?
A. The role
B. The schema name
C. The owner keyword
D. The current SQLID if set.
55. A DBA needs to use the DSN command processor to delete DB2 packages that are no longer needed. Which of the following choices is correct for the DBA to use?
A. SPUFI or QMF with the DROP statement
B. FREE Package <collid>.<name of package>.<version id>.
C. DROP Package <collid>.<name of package>.<version id>.
D. DROP PLAN <plan name>. PKLIST <collid>.<name of a particular package>.<version id>.
56. Which of the following tools is used to create subscription sets and add subscription-set members to subscription sets?
B. License Center
C. Replication Center
D. Development Center
57. Given the following table definition:
Which of the following SQL statements will return a result set that satisfies these conditions:
-Displays the department ID and the total number of employees in each department.
-Includes only departments with at least one employee receiving a commission comm. greater than 5000.
-Sorted by the department employee count from greatest to least.
A. SELECT dept, COUNT*. FROM staff GROUP BY dept HAVING comm > 5000 ORDER BY 2 DESC
B. SELECT dept, COUNT*. FROM staff WHERE comm > 5000 GROUP BY dept, comm ORDER BY 2 DESC
C. SELECT dept, COUNT*. FROM staff GROUP BY dept HAVING MAXcomm. > 5000 ORDER BY 2 DESC
D. SELECT dept, comm, COUNTid. FROM staff WHERE comm > 5000 GROUP BY dept, comm ORDER BY 3 DESC
58. Which of the following DB2 data types CANNOT be used to contain the date an employee was hired?
59. A table called EMPLOYEE has the following columns:
Which of the following will allow USER1 to modify the PHONE_NUMBER column?
A. GRANT INDEX phone_number. ON TABLE employee TO user1
B. GRANT ALTER phone_number. ON TABLE employee TO user1
C. GRANT UPDATE phone_number. ON TABLE employee TO user1
D. GRANT REFERENCES phone_number. ON TABLE employee TO user1
60. Which two of the following SQL data types should be used to store a small binary image?
E. VARCHAR FOR BIT DATA
Ans: B, E
61. Which of the following CLI/ODBC functions should be used to delete rows from a DB2 table?
62. Given the tables T1 and T2 with INTEGER columns:
How many rows will be left in T1 after running this statement?
63. Given the following code:
EXEC SQL EXECUTE IMMEDIATE: sqlstmt
Which of the following values must sqlstmt contain so that all rows are deleted from the STAFF table?
A. DROP TABLE staff
B. DELETE FROM staff
C. DROP * FROM staff
D. DELETE * FROM staff
64. An ODBC/CLI application executes the following batch SQL:
SQLExecDirect hStmt, “SELECT c1 FROM t1; SELECT c2 FROM t2;” SQL_NTS .;
Which API is used to discard the first result set and make the second available for processing?
65. Given the table T1 with the following data:
What is the final content of the host variable “he”?
66. Which of the following is required to specify the output data during an EXPORT?
B. Key range
D. Full select
Ans : D
67. On which of the following event types can a WHERE clause be used to filter the data returned by the event monitor?
Ans : D
68. Given an application with the embedded static SQL statement:
INSERT INTO admin. payroll employee, salary. VALUES “Becky Smith”,80000.
Which of the following privileges must a user hold to run the application?
A. ALTER on the table
B. INSERT on the table
C. DBADM on the database
D. EXECUTE on the package
Ans : D
69. Assuming a user has CREATETAB privileges, which of the following privileges will allow the user to create a table T2 with a foreign key that references table T1?
C. UPDATE on table T1
D. CONTROL on table T1
Ans : D
70. Which of the following statements is required to register a federated database source?
A. CREATE VIEW
B. CREATE WRAPPER
C. CREATE TRANSFORM
D. CREATE TYPE MAPPING
71. Which two of the following can be done to a buffer pool using the ALTER BUFFERPOOL statement?
A. Reduce size.
B. Change the page size.
C. Modify the extent size.
D. Modify the prefetch size.
E. Immediately increase the size.
72. A table is defined using DMS table spaces with its index, data, and long data separated into different tablespaces. The tablespace containing the table data is restored from a backup image.
Which of the table’s other tablespaces must also be restored in order to roll forward to a point in time prior to the end of the logs?
A. Long tablespace
B. Index tablespace
C. Temporary tablespace
D. Index and long tablespaces
Ans : D
73. In a federated system, a userid is used for the CREATE SERVER definition at the DB2 data source.
Which of the following privileges should it have?
A. SELECT on the catalog at the DB2 data source
B. UPDATE on the CREATE SERVER definition table
C. SELECT on the tables for which nicknames are created
D. INSERT on the tables for which nicknames are created
74. Which of the following can enable multiple prefetchers for tablespaces with a single container?
75. Given a single physical server with a single OS image utilizing 24 CPUs and configured with 12 database partitions, how many of the database partitions can act as coordinator partitions for remote applications?
76. When using AUTOCONFIGURE and a workload that is of type OLTP, what should be used for the workload_type parameter?
78. To determine the state of a tablespace and the location of all containers for that tablespace, which of the following commands would be used?
A. LIST TABLESPACES SHOW DETAIL
B. GET SNAPSHOT FOR TABLESPACES ON <dbname>
C. LIST TABLESPACE CONTAINERS FOR <tablespace id>
D. GET SNAPSHOT FOR TABLESPACES ON <dbname> SHOW DETAIL
79. The following command is issued:
LOAD FROM staff.if OF IXF REPLACE INTO staff
What locks are helping during the execution of this load?
A. Share lock on table STAFF
B. An exclusive lock on table STAFF
C. An exclusive lock on all tablespaces holding components of the STAFF table
D. Exclusive lock only on tablespace holding data component of the STAFF table
80. Use the exhibit button to display the exhibit for this question.
What is indicated by the output from the Health Monitor in the exhibit?
A. 1 warning alert on NTINST, 2 alarm and 1 warning alert on NTDB
B. 1 warning alert on NTINST, 1 alarm and 1 warning alert on NTDB
C. 1 alarm and 1 warning alert on NTINST, 2 alarm and 1 warning alert on NTDB
D. 1 alarm and 1 warning alert on NTINST, 1 alarm and 1 warning alert on NTDB